Let’s say a man has 0000 in assets. The wife who wants a divorce isn’t clear on how much he actually has, but she knows she is entitled to half in her state if she goes through the court. She is being pressured by her attorney to come up with more money to pay her legal fees. Her attorney tells her to just sign an agreement entitling her to 0000 and the divorce will be final, but all along this attorney could have requested by order of the court that his fee be paid by the husband. The wife was not made aware of this possibility and the husband pays the attorney 0000 for making this deal happen. Is this fraud or malpractice? Or legal in any way? It seems like a bribe. I have a friend who feels this is what is going on in her divorce. Also can she be bound by an agreement to settle for an amount which is not yet determined? Like signing that she will accept a cash settlement and the amount will be determined after she signs (just to get the deal done quickly since she desperately needs living expense money at this point) Yes this actually almost happened. I just don’t know how this could be legal. Example..she says ok I’ll accept the settlement and signs. The next day the husband gives her 10000. What recourse would she have?
